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Not a Relationship, but a Religion PDF Print E-mail
Engaging the Culture - Old Table Talk Articles
Written by Douglas Wilson   
Tuesday, 17 July 2007 05:17

Revivalism is actually the religion of magical technique. This religion is an ancient one, but the contemporary American form of it is revivalism.

The purpose of all such religious technique is to control and manipulate the god who serves those adepts who want to worship themselves under cover of worshiping him. Through certain techniques, what they will receive in return for worshiping him is personal salvation, personal affluence and a personal relationship.

The technique itself reveals the essential gnostic flavor of American Christianity. Each person is assumed to have the divine ability to choose that which is good, and is regularly called upon by the evangelist to make that choice. If the one being invited relies on his own heart, and makes the right decision in his own heart, and follows the instructions given to him very carefully, then he will receive what he wants. The instructions given (or techniques) will vary from place to place, but the theology underneath it is remarkably consistent. In one place, it is necessary to go forward at the end of the church meeting. In another place, it is necessary to say the words printed in the back of a tract or booklet. Of course, by God’s grace, a number of people have been genuinely saved under such circumstances. But it must also be said that many others have remained in their sins, clutching their technique.

Whenever men make a religion, with a god at the top of it, they always make a religion that can be manipulated with some ease. In revivalism, the rules are simple. When you know what you want, go forward and get it. From the time of Charles Finney on, many have never questioned such things because they are universally assumed to be scriptural. But are they scriptural?

I am fond of telling people that Christianity is not a relationship, it is a religion. Of course, after having made the point, I hasten to add that it is a covenantal religion with a covenantal relationship at the heart of it. God promises that we will be His people, and He will be our God. But this is not what the religion of revivalism demands. Revivalism demands that there be what is called "a personal relationship." And of course, we must be careful here. Each believer is a person, created in the image of God, and God has poured out His Spirit into the hearts of believers, causing them to cry out, Abba, Father. In a profound sense, this is a personal relationship. But this is not what revivalism means by "personal relationship."

In revivalism, this personal relationship is isolated and individualistic. In the orthodox Christian faith, our personal relationship is covenantal and connected. God never establishes Himself as an individual's Father without simultaneously giving that person countless brothers and sisters. This is another way of saying that there is no salvation outside the Church. Note the difference it makes in the nature of devotion – one emphasizes a personal "quiet time" while the other emphasizes corporate worship.

And this question of the personal relationship relates to the common practice of inviting Jesus into our hearts. Where does the Bible tell us to do this, or where does it show someone doing this? The question "what must I do to be saved?" is asked in Scripture. But the answers we like to provide to that question are not found so easily. We want to tell the Phillipian jailer to ask Jesus into his heart. We want to tell Ethiopian eunuch to respond to the altar call. We want to tell Lydia to sign a card indicating her personal commitment.

This leads naturally to the problem of pseudo-sacraments. Many advocates of revivalism object strongly to practices like infant baptism because they do not see "examples of it from Scripture." Although I do see paedobaptism taught in Scripture, that is not my point here. My concern is why this objection to baptizing infants arises when there is no objection to taking those same kids to summer youth camp thirteen years later in order to have them all throw pines cones in the fire as a sacramental indicator of their commitment or recommitment? A rejection of God’s sacraments will not give us "no sacraments," but rather substitute sacraments. And this is what has happened to us. Revivalism has brought in a whole host of substitute sacraments.

If someone were to maintain they were a Christian because their parents brought them down to the front of the church and there had them baptized, many modern evangelicals would be greatly dismayed. You don't become a Christian because your parents bring you down front to be baptized. You become a Christian when a friend brings you down to the same place in the church building and you sign a little card. In order to be a modern evangelical sacrament, the requirement apparently is that there be no scriptural case for it.

We do this because we are nervous that biblical sacraments night be abused. Of course, this is true. They can be, have been, and will be. Men are sinful and they invent many different ways to ignore what the Bible teaches. But the best thing we can do in response to this sinfulness is to take pains to hear the Scriptures carefully. When men abuse the Word by presumption in their orthodoxy, the response ought not to be presumptive heresy. Always, to the law and the testimony!



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Last Updated on Tuesday, 17 July 2007 05:17
 
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John Simmons  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 5:45 am
Excellent post, Pastor. I hear "religion" disparaged all the time, usually by "speakers" whose heroes (Spurgeon, Edwards) used that word constantly. I always end up blogging about how silly it is. What do you do, just sit there and "relate" to Jesus in your head all day? How do I do that? By following practices you've come up with to re-invent the wheel? It's frustrating.
Frank Turk  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 6:54 am
Wow. Why does my baptist bottom hurt? And why is there a shoe print on my pants?
Jane Dunsworth  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 7:13 am
I dunno, Frank, but I'll bet Pastor W. doesn't exclusively have Baptist practices in mind. I knew a Presbyterian pastor who eschewed Lent and Christmas with a vehement Scots violence and promptly introduced Chapel of the Air's "50 Day Spiritual Adventure" (yep, Warren didn't think that one up either) to our congregation. Kind of somewhere spanning the time between February and April, strangely enough. Granted church seasons aren't directly scriptural in the same way that sacraments are, but it's a similar tendency to reject someone else's idea of "religion" in favor of your own of "relationship."

A more obvious example is the folks who express a horror of the notion that weekly communion communicates a genuine spiritual benefit to the partakers, right after they get done warning you that if you don't have your daily quiet time regularly, you'll fall out of fellowship like a rock out of an airplane. It isn't only Baptists who do this, though arguably Baptists have formalized and institutionalized it more than others.

Kent Brandenburg  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 9:05 am
I am repulsed by the revivalists, the name-on-the-card, lifted-your-hand, prayed-the-prayer, asked-Jesus-into-your-heart people, and my eschewing of them doesn't help me see infant sprinkling. I do believe that salvation is related to the church (1 John 2:19; Matthew 18:18), but even those that continue for a period of time may not be "of us." In other words, church membership isn't salvation. So I don't understand this statement: "This is another way of saying that there is no salvation outside the Church." I see Scripture teaching salvation "in Christ," but not in the church. That would seem to necessitate baptism as a prerequisite.
Frank Turk  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 10:05 am
Without violating the rules at this blog, Kent, it is because you have a very narrow slot through which you view the whole world.

I haven't even come close to abandoning believer's baptism (because it is what the Bible teaches, after all, and one can't top that), but it seems obvious to me that Doug's point here is this:

(a)In revivalism, this personal relationship is isolated and individualistic. In the orthodox Christian faith, our personal relationship is covenantal and connected. That is, the faith teaches us we are not saved alone in spite of being saved by grace through faith alone. We are part of a body in the immediate sense.

[more]

Frank Turk  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 10:13 am
[cont]

(b)God never establishes Himself as an individual's Father without simultaneously giving that person countless brothers and sisters. That is, God doesn't expect us to be rugged individuals, and actually brings us out of the orphanage of individualism into Christ, into a family with one Father.

(c)This is another way of saying that there is no salvation outside the Church. That is, there's only one family that gets saved -- just like Noah in the flood, and just like its says in Eph 2.

[more]

Frank Turk  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 10:16 am
[cont]

(d)Note the difference it makes in the nature of devotion – one emphasizes a personal "quiet time" while the other emphasizes corporate worship. That is, if we are saved to be together, it only makes sense that we worship together.

And in that Doug's point goes on that even if we reject that as "unbiblical", we wind up imitating that in our non-sacraments anyway. That is, if what the Bible says to do together isn't holy enough, how much less are our fraudulent imitations of what the Bible says.

... Kent ...

Gene  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 10:27 am
Kent:

If the Church is the Body of Christ, how can there be salvation outside of it? Is there salvation outside of Christ? Remember that it is baptism that places you in Christ (Romans 6:3), scripture doesn't list anything else as doing that.

Frank, well said. You have been listening. Of course, no one but a believer should be baptized. In light of 1 Cor 7:14, who is a believer? God Bless,

David Houf  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 11:51 am
Regarding covenantal relationship, it is interesting how the covenantal connectedness we have with God (through Christ) is missing in Islam. I happen to be reading the Sword of Islam at this moment, and while the book only covers the nature of Allah in very broad strokes, one major aspect is that Allah is unapproachable. His utter transcendence makes it impossible to have a covenantal relationship. Just another way in which the two religions differ.
David Houf  Tuesday, July 17, 2007 11:54 am
Excuse me, the book is "The Sword of the Prophet." See pgs 59-65
ian robertson  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 12:52 am
Let me get this flow right.

American Revivalism absorbed "individualism" from the culture around it. Thus a covenental relationship/religion was replaced by an individualistic relationship/religion. The revivalist is claiming to be offering a "Personal relationship" with God. In reality, instead of having a truly personal relationship that a covenantal religion delivers, you end up with a "private" religion. Thus church becomes a secondary activity. And Church discipline goes right out the door. Does this flow correctly.
David  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 2:55 am
Gene,


I am quite sure you have a well developed understanding of Romans 6:3 (no sarcasm intended here). Nevertheless, I want to ask how you can be so sure that water baptism is the focus in the verse and not a straightforward metaphorical use of the term? Please understand I am not talking about spiritualizing the text.

Gene  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 3:24 am
David, far better men that me have wrestled with baptism! I follow Dr. Leithart in thinking that when the New Testament says baptism does this or that, it means baptism as we can participate in it: water baptism. I am bound by the Westminster Confession, so I believe that we can lawfully attribute to the sign the thing signified. Baptism does not work ex opere operato as the Roman Church insists, but rather it works through faith alone.

Pastor Wilson's point is very well made: either we will use the sacraments God has given us, or we will make up our own. Baptism is how we get out of Adam and into Christ.

Hope that helps! God Bless,

David  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 8:49 am
Gene,

Thanks for your response, it is very clear and to the point. I too read Dr. Leithart and consider him a brilliant theologian. I really don't want to belabor this so I'll just finish by saying that this verse does not say "baptism does this or that." The verse says that believers are baptized into . . . It is a verb and in the ordinary day to day usage of those speaking Koine Greek it did not only mean the sacrament that we immediately think of when we see the word in English.
Gene  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 9:01 am
David, you lost me on that one! I am only a first year Greek student and I am studying classical Greek at that. What is the difference between baptizo used in Romans 6:3 and baptizo used in Galatians 3:27? In the context of this post, why would you want to have baptizo mean anything other than the sacrament? All that would do is open the door to non-scriptural sacraments, which would seem to be counter-productive. God Bless,
David  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 11:33 am
Gene,


Sorry for the confusion. I assure you it was not intentional. I was keying off of your statement that based on Dr. Leithart "when the New Testament says baptism does this or that . . ." My point was that Romans 6:3 does not have baptism as a noun doing anything. The believer in this verse is having something done to him/her and it is called being baptized. Being baptized with water is indeed one example of being baptized. But, there are others. I came across the following in BDB/Thayers that explains what the word baptidzo meant at that time.


"The clearest example that shows the meaning of baptizo is a text from the Greek poet and physician Nicander, who lived about 200 B.C. It is a recipe for making pickles and is helpful because it uses both words. Nicander says that in order to make a pickle, the vegetable should first be 'dipped' (bapto) into boiling water and then 'baptised' (baptizo) in the vinegar solution. Both verbs concern the immersing of vegetables in a solution. But the first is temporary. The second, the act of baptising the vegetable, produces a permanent change."


In Romans 6:3 Paul is talking about a permanent change that is made in the believer. Is it water baptism that does this? I say it is the baptism of the Holy Spirit when He indwells the believer that makes the permanent change; not the getting wet type of baptism.

Jane Dunsworth  Wednesday, July 18, 2007 11:47 am
David, I think the point that Gene is trying to make here is that there is no intra-textual evidence in scripture that "the getting wet type of baptism" and "the baptism of the Holy Spirit" are distinct concepts that can be opposed to one another. There's also nothing in the original language rendering of Romans 6:3 that enables you to choose one over the other -- if such a choice is forced and then made, it is because of theological commitments, not linguistic requirements in the text itself. N.B., I know nothing about the original languages, I'm just saying that's what I understand the argument to be.
Gene  Thursday, July 19, 2007 2:26 am
David, amen to Jane. The only reason I can see for not thinking that baptism is not baptism has to come from outside the text. There may be good reasons for departing from the text, but that action always has ramifications. And if baptism doesn't really mean baptism, perhaps adultery doesn't mean adultery, either...
David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 2:51 am
Jane,


Nice to hear from you; I do find your comments quite thought provoking.


My original question to Gene was how he could be so sure that water baptism is what is in view in Romans 6:3. So, I agree with you that the answer does not just jump off the page. (But it is there) The answer I understood Gene gave was that at least Dr. Leithart says it is water baptism. I was looking for something more objective.


Also, are you saying here that baptism with water and baptism of the Holy Spirit are synonymous events? If you say yes, then it naturally follows that I would be interested in the evidence for this.

David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 3:04 am
Gene,

There is a sacrament which has a name. This name is also a word which has a meaning in the language. This Greek word existed before the church applied the word to the sacrament. So, in any given use of the word there is a question as to how the author meant it to be understood. Nicander has made the meaning very clear, don't you think? That word can be used in a literal sense and also in a figurative sense. With regard to pickles, Nicander used it in a most literal sense. It seems that Paul is also using it in a most literal sense. There is a real change that takes place in a believer when the Holy Spirit changes him/her from being dead to being alive. Now that is a baptism; a real change. Kind of like a cucumber becoming a pickle. People engaged in a human activity involving water does not in and of itself make such a change.
Gene  Thursday, July 19, 2007 5:42 am
David, again, there is nothing in the text which requires us to resort to Nicander's pickles. To keep with Pastor Wilson's emphasis, our covenant is objective and is entered into by way of baptism. This discussion has been going on for centuries, and the fallout is heaped all around us. I understand wanting to keep the church pure, but removing God's objective standards and replacing them with subjective standards, no matter how convincing they may be, is the way to disaster.

Baptism is baptism. When the church does her job, there is no need to police the membership with non-scriptural standards.

As far the difference between baptisms, whether water, Spirit, fire or death, that is way off topic. However, I would be interested to know how you could seperate the Holy Spirit from baptism, given 1 Cor 12:13?

God Bless,

Kent Brandenburg  Thursday, July 19, 2007 9:35 am
Frank, Hi. I actually did catch what Doug was saying despite my mail-slot-sized worldview (one Bible can fit through). You did about as good as anyone could in compacting his essay into your conviction about believer's baptism. I don't think it is actually possible to bring the two views together.


Regarding Romans 6:3, 4, I too believe that this is water baptism, identifying with Christ's life and death. Jane wrote, "[There is] nothing in the original language rendering of Romans 6:3 that enables you to choose one over the other." I disagree. The use of "into" (eis) differs from "in" (en), the first showing identification; the second indicating position. You see the same type of usage in 1 Cor. 10, where the people of Israel are baptized "into Moses." Obviously they were not physically placed "in" Moses, but identifying with him as their leader. Baptism identifies us with the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, publically professing the crucifixion and burial of our old man and the resurrection of our new man.
David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 9:50 am
Gene,


"As far the difference between baptisms, whether water, Spirit, fire or death, that is way off topic."


I thought that was the topic. That is, which one Romans 6:3 was talking about.


I think we agree that except for ourselves we can't possibly know with certainty that somebody else is truly in possession of eternal life. So, I agree that churches can baptize whomever, even infants. The issue to me is what the church thinks is going on at the time of 'wetting' and whether Scripture supports that view.


"However, I would be interested to know how you could seperate the Holy Spirit from baptism, given 1 Cor 12:13?"


I believe that Scripture teaches that the Holy Spirit changes a believer at the point of regeneration in lots of ways. This act is referred to in Scripture as the baptism of the Holy Spirit or sometimes just baptism. There is also a baptism of water that the church is directed to perform. Two different types of baptisms or changes in people.

Kent Brandenburg  Thursday, July 19, 2007 11:39 am
David,


1 Cor. 12:13 can't be Spirit baptism. First, it doesn't fit the model of Mt. 3:11, Mk. 1:8, Lk. 3:16, and Jn. 1:33, where Spirit baptism is predicted. There the Administrator of the baptism is Christ, the timing subsequent to salvation, and the Holy Spirit is the medium. If 1 Cor. 12:13 is Spirit baptism, then it fails on all three points.

Second, the word translated "by" is en, en heni pneumati, the same exact construction you'll see in Philip. 1:27, speaking of a spirit of unity.


Third, you'll see only water baptism in the context of 1 Cor.---look back to chapter 1.


Fourth, the Father places us in Christ, not the Holy Spirit (Jn. 10:29).


However, the body is obviously a local, visible one. In v. 27, Paul says, "ye are the body," speaking of the church at Corinth. In v. 25, he says "no schism in the body," and that could be only a local body, even as it is described in the chapter.
Gene  Thursday, July 19, 2007 11:45 am
David, until Pastor Wilson boots us out, we can pretend that this about the difference between baptisms.

Forgive me, but you seem in the grip of what Pastor Wilson calls "Viewing the Covenant through the lens of Election." That is, you are assuming that eternal election is the starting point for understanding our relationship with God. You have rightly pointed out that we cannot know that someone else is elect. Ultimately, I suppose that may be true, but I am only conceding the point for this present argument. Viewing covenant through the lens of election causes problems, precisely because we do not know the elect. When everything must be seen as hinging on eternal election, everything truly knowable slips away. There is nothing from our perspective that we can grasp.

- cont –

Gene  Thursday, July 19, 2007 11:45 am
- cont –

On the other hand, if we view Election through the lens of the Covenant, things become much more manageable. There is an objective standard (baptism) to which appeal can be made. “Have you been baptized? Yes – well then you cannot act that way.” If our faith is only something that is marked by inward signs and evidence, real-life discipline and sanctification become difficult to judge. This seems to play itself out in two ways. There are those that vigorously protect the church to make sure that only the elect are present in it. Baptists (I spent 37 years as a Baptist, I know!) are best at this, but many Presbyterians agree with them and copy their every movement. The problem is that you cannot set up enough tests and traps to eliminate the occasional apostate from slipping through. Of course, Jesus saw this and gave us fair warning in Matt. 13:24 – 30. When we have an objective standard – baptism – we can call one and all to submission. When they don’t submit, we exercise church discipline and let God sort ‘em out in eternity. .

- cont –

Gene  Thursday, July 19, 2007 11:46 am
- cont –

As far as the difference between the baptisms, I would say that in most cases, those who make the distinctions are doing so in an effort to protect the purity of the church. While that is a worthy goal, I believe that it always go astray. The American Puritans showed us through their half-way covenant that it simply does not work. Look at the northeastern Unitarians for their spiritual heritage.

I am not trying to dodge your question about the various baptisms. I believe it is absolutely unnecessary to decouple the Spirit from water baptism. If we indeed are in Christ, it is because our baptism was made effective by the Spirit. I hold to the Westminster Confession, so I am able to attribute to the sign the thing signified without fear. I also know, because Peter told me, that baptism is a clean conscience toward God, not a clean body.

At any rate, I hope that helps. God Bless,

David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 12:37 pm
Gene


That was some comment! I really do appreciate your efforts to help me, a stranger, understand your point of view. Sadly, to respond to all the points that deserve a response would take a book! So forgive me if I miss something important.


"When everything must be seen as hinging on eternal election, everything truly knowable slips away. There is nothing from our perspective that we can grasp."


I don't see this. I hear the gospel and I respond. Now, I know how I am to live. For example, I am to let God control me. What, that is knowable, has slipped away? Oh, and one of the things that is clear is that He desires that I be baptized.


"Have you been baptized? Yes - well then you cannot act that way."


Here is a hypothetical response "Oh yes I can!!!"


Couldn't I ask somebody if they have had a sweet sixteen birthday and use the same sort of logic to try to get them to behave in the way I see as best? It is not up to me to get somebody else to behave in a certain way (I am not considering underage children). So, if there is somebody in my church family that is sinning, then it is up to me to love them and help to move them to repentance. But, their having or not having been baptized is not really the issue.

[cont]

David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 12:38 pm
[cont]


If my church has true church discipline and the members have submitted to it then there is that avenue available to the leadership. Again, that has nothing to do with baptism.


"If our faith is only something that is marked by inward signs and evidence, real-life discipline and sanctification become difficult to judge."


But, I am not the judge! And, I know how I am doing if I am a member of a true church where loving one another is real.


"The problem is that you cannot set up enough tests and traps to eliminate the occasional apostate from slipping through."


Agreed. As humans we should do the best we can since we really can't do any more than that. What is the energizing motive and is love really in control?


" . . .those who make the distinctions (between baptisms) are doing so in an effort to protect the purity of the church."


Please don't misunderstand me; but, I don't need to protect the church. My goal in this issue is to understand the Scriptures as God meant for them to be understood. And, then live accordingly.

Gene  Thursday, July 19, 2007 1:37 pm
So David, where does the church come into your plans?
David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 2:22 pm
Kent,


Now that is a detailed post that is dealing with Scripture. Superb! Since this exchange could easily get out of hand (regarding number of words) I'll try to be brief here as a start.


Up to now, the discussion has centered on Romans 6:3 as an example of spirit baptism. However, with regard to 1 Cor 12:13, I believe this is also what is being described. So I guess we start with differing views.


The particular spirit baptism that Matthew 3:11 deals with seems to point to a future event that is being described for the Jews. John the Baptist was talking to Jews and the spirit baptism he mentioned also had to do with them ("He will baptize you"). So, it seems like gentiles are not in view and thus the church (as it exists today) seems not to be the focus either. Also, as I remember my 'spirit baptism' I don't remember there being any fire involved. So, Matthew 3:11 does not seem to me to be a model of spirit baptism of the Jewish or gentile believer of today. Could it possibly be referring to the start of the Christian church at Pentecost???


[Cont]

David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 2:23 pm
[Cont]


I'll just comment on one other point for now: "Fourth, the Father places us in Christ, not the Holy Spirit (Jn. 10:29)."


It is the Father who selects those for Christ's body. It is the Holy Spirit who actually transfers the saved from the kingdom of satan to the kingdom of His Son. This transformation is what is referred to as a baptism, i.e., a complete change in the person initiated by the indwelling of the Holy Spirit.

David  Thursday, July 19, 2007 2:26 pm
Gene,


Sorry but I really don't know what you are getting at with that last comment. I have no plans for the church. That is God's job and I trust Him to do it well. My job is to love all the members of Christ's body.

Kent Brandenburg  Friday, July 20, 2007 5:26 am
David,


The teaching of 1 Cor. 12:13 is that water baptism (the only baptism in 1 Cor.) associates us in the spirit of unity (en heni pneumati, in one spirit) with the visible body of Christ. The passage is about unity and then how diversity (body parts) brings unity. The body is the church at Corinth (v. 27). The local church, the body of Christ, is to have no schism (v. 25). The construction duplicates 1 Cor. 10:2, "baptized unto Moses." Israel associated with Moses through a visible, physical event, passing through the Red Sea. If it were Spirit baptism, there should be some context to it, and when we go back next chronologically, we get the gospels, and the model for Spirit baptism does not match 1 Cor. 12:13.
David  Friday, July 20, 2007 10:41 am
Kent,


"water baptism (the only baptism in 1 Cor.)"


I agree that chapter 1 is all about water baptism. However, I sure don't see water baptism in 10:2. Here, baptism just means that they were all in unity with Moses when they were under the cloud on their travels and also when they went thru the red sea together.


Concerning 12:13: The chapter starts off talking about how it is the Holy Spirit who gives to each one (I assume we are in agreement that only believers are in view here?) spiritual gifts. At least up to verse 11 it is all about believers (decretally saved humans, right?). There is no reason that I can see to assume verses 12 and 13 have now shifted to another group comprised of saved and unsaved people. But, that seems to be where you go with the idea that water baptism here is what unites people with the visible body of Christ.


As far as 15:29 is concerned I haven't a clue what this is about. (baptized for the dead???).